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Question 1

Which of the following is correct regarding vulval neoplasms?

a) Vulval warts are usually caused by human papillomavirus types 16 and 18.

b) Undifferentiated vulval intraepithelial neoplasia is related to chronic inflammatory skin diseases.

c) Differentiated vulval intraepithelial neoplasia carries a significant risk of progression into an invasive malignancy.

d) The commonest vulval malignancy is adenocarcinoma.

Question 2

Which of the following is correct regarding vaginal infections?

a) Bacterial vaginosis is sexually transmitted.

b) Trichomoniasis is caused by a Gram negative bacillus.

c) Candidal pseudohyphae can be seen by light microscopy of a wet mount preparation of the vaginal discharge.

d) A vaginal discharge with a pH lower than 4.5 suggests either bacterial vaginosis or trichomoniasis.

Question 3

Which of the following is correct regarding cervical squamous neoplasia?

a) Virtually all cases arise in the transformation zone of the cervix.

b) The HPV E6 protein inhibits the actions of the retinoblastoma gene product.

c) Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia is divided into three grades depending on how much of the epithelium is metaplastic.

d) Most patients with high grade CIN would develop squamous cell carcinoma if untreated.

Question 4

Which of the following is correct regarding the NHS cervical screening programme?

a) All women in the UK aged between 20 and 64 are invited for cervical smears.

b) The screening programme aims to detect patients with squamous cell carcinoma.

c) The smear is examined under the microscope for dysplasia.

d) A single smear showing high grade abnormalities warrants colposcopy referral.

Question 5

Which of the following is correct regarding endometriosis?

a) It refers to the presence of endometrial glands outside the uterus.

b) Symptoms are related to the amount of endometriosis.

c) The implantation and metaplasia theories probably account for most cases.

d) Diagnosis requires biopsy of an area of endometriosis.

Question 6

Which of the following is correct regarding endometrial hyperplasia?

a) It is defined by an increase in the ratio of endometrial stroma relative to endometrial glands.

b) The diagnosis can be made by transvaginal ultrasound.

c) Possible sources of exogenous and endogenous oestrogens should be sought in women found to have endometrial hyperplasia.

d) Hyperplasia without cytological atypia carries a significant risk of progression into endometrial carcinoma.

Question 7

Which of the following is correct regarding polycystic ovarian syndrome?

a) The diagnosis requires evidence of ovulatory failure, androgen excess, and polycystic ovaries on ultrasound.

b) Insulin resistance is thought to be important in the pathogenesis of the syndrome.

c) Ovulatory failure leads to endometrial atrophy.

d) It affects 1% of women.

Question 8

Which of the following is correct regarding ovarian neoplasms?

a) Mature cystic teratoma is a type of germ cell tumour.

b) Benign serous cystadenomas are the most common type of benign epithelial ovarian tumour.

c) Borderline tumours carry a poor prognosis.

d) The most common malignant epithelial tumour is a mucinous cystadenocarcinoma.

Question 9

Which of the following is correct regarding gestational trophoblastic disease?

a) Most hydatidiform moles are diagnosed when the uterus is found to be larger than expected for the gestational date.

b) Partial moles may have fetal parts.

c) Complete moles are triploid.

d) Gestational choriocarcinoma is a highly malignant tumour of trophoblast with a poor prognosis.

Question 10

Which of the following is correct regarding preeclampsia?

a) It affects about 10% of all pregnancies.

b) Shallow infiltration of the myometrium by trophoblast appears to be the crucial underlying problem.

c) The diagnosis requires the presence of hypertension, proteinuria, and oedema.

d) Preeclampsia may be cured using antihypertensive and antiplatelet drugs.

Oxford University Press, Online Resource Centre, Chapter 12.

Chapter 12

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